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    Re: Latitude by Lunar Distance
    From: Peter Fogg
    Date: 2006 Oct 7, 10:39 +1000


    On 10/5/06, Frank Reed wrote:

    Here's an example of fixing your position using angles measured from
    the Moon to stars only, no altitudes whatsoever. This approach assumes
    that GMT is a known quantity ...

    If the effects of parallax and refraction are ignored, then the angular distance between two celestial bodies is going to be identical from any point on earth from which it can be observed at that moment? In other words; this angular distance is invariant with respect to position?

    For this method to work the angular distance would need to change according to the observer's position?

    Could Frank perhaps explain this process in more detail, including a fully worked example?

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